• whoelectroplateuntil@sh.itjust.works
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    29
    ·
    edit-2
    4 months ago

    I mean, the whole argument hinges on the fact that the procedures around Section 3 are ambiguous, but clearly since states haven’t tried to do it themselves before, that means they obviously don’t have the authority. So, the precedent exists not because it has actually been set, but because it can be inferred to exist by the fact that it hasn’t been set.

    May as well have signed it in crayon, too. OH WAIT THEY DIDN’T SIGN IT

    • FiniteBanjo@lemmy.today
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      4
      ·
      4 months ago

      It doesn’t really make any sense, the SCOTUS expects congress to vote on enforcing laws that they passed 150 years ago every time the issue comes up? Why? They already voted.